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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:09:31 GMT -5
REsponse from Eloh:
Dayum Home boyeeeeeeeeeee.... I see you're still stuck on that One so-called God concept huh....who's just one of many,and you shouldn't accept no- other Gods
yo, your book is plaguerized bro.
hebrew ain't like Eng/angle ish
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:10:12 GMT -5
This is TOTALLY unfair. How many times are you going to use this one? Why are you milking this one situation? Oh I know. to try and multiply the amount of "errors" you say you have found in the bible. Sorry, dude but we just covered this one. It's not an error on God's or the bible's part but a mistake and lack of scholarship on YOUR part. Just to recap for the party people in the audience. Genesis chapter 1 until Chapter 2:6 is nothing more than the GENEOLOGY of the heavens and the earth in chronicled form. While the subcreation in chapter 2 is SPECIFIC to God planting the Garden of Eden. It's a garden that God himself is credited to planting. Which means this is extracirricular activity on God's part that takes place on the 6th day. Notice that the WHOLE aura of the event is about the Garden of Eden which is NOT covered in the synopsized version of creation in chapter 1. It's done in journalism ALL the time and the bible is no exception. The book was meant to be read by people who could use their brains. I guess our friend here is lacking the proper cranium architecture to do the latter correctly
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:11:11 GMT -5
Moses' personality Num.12:3: "Now the man Moses was very meek, above all the men which were upon the fact of the earth." Num.31:14, 17, 18: "And Moses was wroth...And Moses said unto them, "Have ye saved all the women alive? ... Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman, ... But all the women children ... keep alive for yourselves."
My, My, My! I am REALLY starting to pity you! The SAD part is that people found this list of contradictions and probably stopped reading the bible because it. The Bad part is they have been influenced by a PURE fool who wants to act like he can't tell the difference between situational context! First of all you are taking the themes out of context! In the first verse it describes Moshe as an over person and his character. That NEXT verse describes how he is in ONE particular situation after he has born the disobedience and rebellion of his people! Aren't humble and meek people entitled to righteous indignation? I am humble as well, AND meek. Anyone who has talked to me on the phone will tell you, but let my children get out of line and you would have sworn I transformed into a tiger!
And I KNOW that the person who supposedly come up with these "errors" of the bible is a muslim. So I will counter this "discrepency" with one I find in the Quran that is VERY similar. Okay. IF THIS is a descrepency, then is it not a descrepency that the Quran says "Allah is most benevolent and most merciful" YET in places TOOOOO numerous to count is ALSO says that Allah will avenge the sinner with the most HIDEOUS torture and punishment? Even says he will go so far as to have the angels beat sinners in their faces as they lie in the grave. IF you are saying that it's contradictory for Moshe to be meek and humble as a person YET have an INCIDENT of anger, then the Quran is with descrepency! But that is YOU who is saying that NOT I! I don't see it as error at ALL!!! I could say I am a lonely person. Does that mean I am LONELY ALL the time? Now you wouldn't take it to mean that at ALL! So then why do you forsake common sense now? Oh I know, because you are under the influence of those who are haters of the scripture and are TRYING HARD to discredit the book. So far you have failed on EVERY and I do mean EVERY attempt!
NEXT!!!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:11:40 GMT -5
How satisfied with creation was he? #1: God says "it was good" after each of his labors, and rests on the seventh day, evidently very satisfied. #2: God has to fix up his creation as he goes, and he would certainly not be very satisfied with the disobedience of that primordial couple. (funny thing that an omniscient god would forget things)
Hey Bible contradiction guy, You stupid!!!! Man oh man!!! You need to go back to sunday school kid!!! How dumb can you be? When God created everything, YES he gave his stamp of approval on it with the word Tov/Tob which means good, exceptable. He didn't complete a day until all things of that day were good and then moved on to another aspect of creation. when he looked and surveyed it ALL upon completion he certified and verified that it ALL was VERY good!!! NOW, remember in Genesis 1:26, he left the reigns of earth over to man for him and her to subdue and replenish it. And God rested on the 7th day AWAY from his creation. Yet man was still here as chaparon over the creation and living in it. And according to the LENGTH of one "day" that 7th "day" of rest last QUITE a long time. In fact we are talking nearly 900 years. And during that 900 years man has multiplied and just lost all sorts of control. Not to mention God's own rebellious sons touchdown on earth and interefered with unlawful relationships and interspecies pregnancies that resulted in corruption of the earth. Dude we are talking apples and oranges how the hell is this a contradiction? I mean I can bake a cake and leave it sitting on the table and leave it there and come back at the end of the day and find that my kids have dug their hands on in it and ruined the cake. When I left it on the table It was VERY good but when I came back it was not suitable for eating because of the corruption from my children. Same animal! Use some daggone common sense and LEARN the book you are trying to criticize. This is a COMMON error one part of the bible playa haters. So quick to take things out of context for their own use and bidding that the only person that looks stupid is the one who brought it up!
And PLEASE show me where the Omniscient One forget something? I don't even see that in your example!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:12:07 GMT -5
Righteous live? Ps.92:12: "The righteous shall flourish like the palm tree." Isa.57:1: "The righteous perisheth, and no man layeth it to heart."
Dude,now this is just plain wrong what you are doing! FIRST of all you can make just about ANYTHING written a contradiction or seem like one when you just take bits and pieces of text from here and there, taking it out of context like that! FIRST of all EACH verse is to be taken within the paragraph, each paragraph within the chapter, each chapter within the book. Precept upon Precept! Now What you have here is a CONDITION. The Righteous SHALL Florish like the Palm Tree but there is a condition that you will find in the NEXT verse: Psa 92:12 The righteous shall flourish like the palm tree: he shall grow like a cedar in Lebanon. Psa 92:13 Those that be planted in the house of the LORD shall flourish in the courts of our God. Psa 92:14 They shall still bring forth fruit in old age; they shall be fat and flourishing; Psa 92:15 To shew that the LORD [is] upright: [he is] my rock, and [there is] no unrighteousness in him.
Maybe you need to go to a clinic on how to READ the bible or any other piece of literature for that matter, because if you do with other books what you do with the bible, you HAVE to be a dunce! The KEY to the righteous FLORISHING like Palm Tree is WHEN they are PLANTED in the HOUSE Of OUR God!
Now let's deal with the verse that you think is opposed to this: NO! In fact let's deal with the GROUP of verseS that are around this verse: Isa 57:1 The righteous perisheth, and no man layeth [it] to heart: and merciful men [are] taken away, none considering that the righteous is taken away from the evil [to come]. Isa 57:2 He shall enter into peace: they shall rest in their beds, [each one] walking [in] his uprightness.
Dude, Let's go back to our hebrew lessons from earlier. The word for perish is Adab, which ALSO means to escape or to flee. Now REREAD that verse with that definition in mind and you will find that it fits BETTER than the translation that is in the King James. Let's read it together shall we?
Isa 57:1 The righteous FLEE/ESCAPETH, and no man layeth [it] to heart: and merciful men [are] taken away, none considering that the righteous is taken away from the evil [to come].
And I NOTICED that you did NOT include the WHOLE verse TRYING to deceive us!!!! that's proof plenty that you are doing this fully cognicent of your OWN errors in finding errors in the bible!!! Because the WHOLE verse itself explains away ANY appearant contradiction! Isa 57:1 The righteous perisheth, and no man layeth [it] to heart: and merciful men [are] taken away, none considering that the righteous is taken away from the evil [to come]. The Righteous are OBVIOUSLY fleeing and are being taken away to PRESERVE them from the Evil to come!!!!!! These are such benefits to the devotees of IHaVaH!!!!
Man, the only one you are FOOLing is Yaself!!!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:12:29 GMT -5
Acts 1:18: "Now this man (Judas) purchased a field with the reward of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out." Matt. 27:5-7: "And he (Judas) cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged himself. And the chief priests...bought with them the potter's field."
This is actually a pretty good one! and ALMOST one of my favorites, but it's tooo easy to be my favorite. It's simple. Let's look at what APPEARS tob e the contradiction(s)
1) Who purchased the field? Ihuda/Judas or the Chief Priests? Answer: BOTH!!!! here is moor of the issue in Mattityahu: Mat 27:6 And the chief priests took the silver pieces, and said, It is not lawful for to put them into the treasury, because it is the price of blood. Mat 27:7 And they took counsel, and bought with them the potter's field, to bury strangers in. Mat 27:8 Wherefore that field was called, The field of blood, unto this day. The Chief Priests bought the field in Ihuda's name so that it would be long to him. Priests were not allowed to own land. The princople of doing something for someone and they getting credit for it is not new. In fact a perfect example is Solomon's temple, Solomon didn't build the temple yet he got credit for it.
2nd) how did Ihuda die? By hanging or by falling off a clff and bursting wide open? answer: BOTH! Hangings were performed on trees, put a tree near a cliff after the dead body bloats and give it some time the branch breaks the body rolls off the cliff and falls BAMM!!! it get's busted up. VOILA!!! OR Those who were angry with Ihudas may have found his dead body hanging from a tree, and took him down and cast him over a cliff into a ditch where other dead bodies where and by time Kefa/Peter was made aware of his death all that was either told to him or what he may have witnessed was Ihuda laying in a ditch with his guts hanging out. You never know, Kefa could have either seen the ending without seeing the beginning or he may have gotten his information by hearsay. But NOTICE he NEVER says this how Ihuda dies.
AGAIN!!! No contradiction!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:12:50 GMT -5
Jesus' first sermon plain or mount? Matt.5:1,2: "And seeing the multitudes, he went up into a mountain: and when he was set, his disciples came unto him: And he opened his mouth, and taught them, saying...." Luke6:17,20: "And he came down with them, and stood in the plain, and the company of his disciples, and a great multitude of people...came to hear him.. And he lifted up his eyes on his disciples and said..."
Dude, this is so tired! the answer is BOTH!!!! But FIRST tell me where ANY author ever said they were recording Ishua's first sermon? If you WANT to know the truth His FIRST sermon would be when he was 12 years old. WE don't know how many times he addressed people in public. In fact who is to say this is even a sermon? It's more like teaching. He was a Rabbi was he not? Now when a teacher is giving a talk what do we call it? a lecture? giving a talk? teaching. Besides IN Mattityahu chapter 5 Ishua ONLY has 4 disciples and he saw the multitudes of people awaiting him. So then he retreats to the mountains along with his 4 disciples. And AFTER his lecture Multitudes of people follow him. Do you by chance thing that Ishua EVER repeated lessons to different groups of people? I would think so! And then in Lukas Ishua handpickes his 12 disciples from among a group of people. And notice that verse 17 says "and he came DOWN" as if to say he was first UP somewhere with them. And too notice that this is a different audience and this information is given to us in BOTH places PRIOR to me verses in question. Tis why it is SOOOO important to read the verses in context.
Mattityahu 4:25 "and there followed him great multitudes of people from GALILEE and from DECAPOLIS and from YERUSHALAYAM and from beyond the YORDAN"
Versus what we read in Lukas 6:17 "And he came down with them, and stood in the plain, and the company of his disciples and a great multitude of people out of all Judea and Yerushalayam and from the sea coast of Tyre and Sidon. The differences also is that in Lukas he heals many people of different ailments, Yet in Mattityahu there is this one dude with leprosy.
Sorry Charlie, AGAIN NO contradiction!!!! It's call attention to detail!
NEXT
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:13:13 GMT -5
Comment from Gregory:
FANTASTIC WORK 1DELL !!!!!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:13:35 GMT -5
Jesus' last words Matt.27:46,50: "And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?" that is to say, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" ...Jesus, when he cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost." Luke23:46: "And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, "Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit:" and having said thus, he gave up the ghost." John19:30: "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, "It is finished:" and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost."
Dude before I forget, take a look at Mattityahu/Matthew and Lukas and you will that about 4 to 5 words are THE EXACT SAME Here they are "Cried with a Loud Voice" the different is that Lukas ACTUALLY recorded what that loud voice was which was "Father into thine hands I commend my spirit" That is what He cried with a loud voice but Mattityahu didn't record that, he just told us that he cried in a loud voice. Now in the bible usually when someone cries with a LOUD voice they are saying somethign and it's not like the crying we used to here in the west , you know that boo hoo type. In Elizabethean english to cry also means to yell. Here it is a matter of distance. Let's look Mattityahu was the furthest away he recorded details but a portion of them vague possibly due to distance to where he could hear the Messiah cry out loud but was too far away to make out his exact words. Lukas, wasn't there I don't think so he got his account from a disciple who was closer than Matthew to record what the loud cry was. And the very last account by Ihavahkhanan/John who was the Messiahs beloved disciple and right at the foot of the execution stake with Ishua's mother could hear every last detail and was close enough to hear Ishua whisper "it is finished" as he simultaneously expired. Which Mattityahu and the disciple Lukas got the account from were too far away to hear these words whispered off the lips at the simultaneous expiration. Dude, that is why I am thankful we have 4+ accounts of the Gospel. It's just like here In Maryland, we have 3 Major Newspapers The WAshington Post, the WAshington Times and USA Today. They all have the same stories in them yet we get facts and info that is not covered in all 3 at the same time. The USA Today reporter captures the event from his perspective and angle that is different from the reporter of the Washington post. I mean one has information the other doesn't but by reading all 3 you get a VERY detailed account of that ONE event! Stop playa hating!!!! Why do you want to treat the bible different than any other literary work? These same exceptions you make for other modern pieces of literature you should apply to me bible as well!!!
Silly Rabbit Tricks iz fo kidz!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:13:59 GMT -5
OOOOHHHHH!!!! I like dis one, dis one is so simple!!!!
Some folk will tell ya that it's a scrible error. They are wrong. Some folk will tell ya that it's because the translators mistook the Zayin for the Gimel 7 and 3 respectively. because Hebrew uses it's alphabet for it's numerical system also. But guess what. They too are wrong
But I am 1dell and defy the christian scholars to the hilt of my sword. So in my worst Rastafarian accent:
Let I 'n I tell ya what it tis this simple ting. HERE is your ansaar!!!
The answer is BOTH!!!!!!! well how can that be I hear you saying to me. well simple. The dispute it between the recordings in the Second book of Shamuel and the 1 Chronicles right? Well there is something unique in Shamuel's book that is NOT in the 1 Chronicles which helps explain where the 7 is coming from that is found in Shamuel's book. First if you take it back to II Shamuel 21:1 you will see this: that there was a famine of 3 years ALREADY in progress during that time and it was because of the unavenged deaths of the amorite remnant that Shaul tried to exterminate out of Ysrael. And the author of the book says that there was a famine of 3 years year after year. Which means if 3 years have already pasted then he must be speaking within the 4th year no? So then David counts the people within that 4th year maybe as a jester due to the famine to keep account of the people who are still alive during the famine I don't know. So by time Gad shows up with the prophecy of God giving DAvid 3 options it makes sense for God to say 7 years of famine as if to say he is tacking on 3 moor years to the already 4 that has past. He could have said it 3 ways (actually the words of God are subject to the way the prophet writes them or the way the recorder records them.) It could have been written "do you want 3 moor years of famine?" or "as a total do you want 7 years of famine?" See the book of Chronicles was written later and is rehashing the ordeals and they are speaking from hindsite and it a better explainiation and make it simple just by saying 3 years. Know the saying hind sight is 20/20?
Again the bible is written by over 40 different people and we are subject to variances in writing styles. Just like a newspaper. The SERIOUS students do not get lost in the foolishness only those who are looking for problems in the first place.
AGAIN!!! no Contradiction!
NEXT!!!!!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:14:36 GMT -5
Moved David to anger? II SAMUEL 24: And again the anger of the LORD was kindled against Israel, and he moved David against them to say, Go, number Isreal and Judah. I CHRONICLES 21: And SATAN stood up against Isreal, and provoked David to number Israel.
You know back in the day I would've held fast to the excuse that apologists' before have fashioned. You know the one that says "The way God moved David was to allow Satan to provoke him"
The prollem is that argument is not sound. Then one could play with the words in the 2 verse. wEll God Moved david yet Satan PROVOKED him. Well that doesn't matter cuz it's the same word in hebrew (Cuth)
But the truth of the matter is it's not a contradiction because Satan and God are the same person in this instance. I know I know, I hear you cats laughing but, here is the 1dealiyo, Satan can be ANYBODY it's NOT the name of the Devil. Satan is a noun AND a verb. Satan is something you DO! And what God did was Satan Because Satan means to withstand, to be an adversary of, that's all it means and IF IHaVaH's anger was kindled AGAINST Ysrael then he becomes and Adversary to Ysrael using David as His tool of wrath. In fact that Word Sataan is used throughout the bible but since you are not readers of hebrew you would not know it. It's used for satan and not just when you see the word Satan in english here is an example. in fact this example shows how the Angel of God was a Satan:
Num 22:22 And God's anger was kindled because he went: and the angel of the LORD stood in the way for an adversary (SATAN!) against him. Now he was riding upon his ass, and his two servants [were] with him.
And here too the same incident:
Num 22:32 And the angel of the LORD said unto him, Wherefore hast thou smitten thine ass these three times? behold, I went out to withstand (SATAN) thee, because [thy] way is perverse before me:
So you see it's the authors prerogative how he relays the information. So when the author of 1 Chronicles says that the Adversary stood up against Ysrael, yes he is talking about God because that Day and many others God was an Adversary to the Hebrews.
Again. No contradiction. Just poor scholarship
NEXT!!!!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:14:56 GMT -5
The GENEALOGY OF JESUS? In two places in the New Testament the genealogy of Jesus son of Mary (PBUH) is mentioned. Matthew 1:6-16 and Luke 3:23-31. Each gives the ancestors of Joseph the CLAIMED husband of Mary and Step father of Jesus(PBUH). The first one starts from Abraham(verse 2) all the way down to Jesus. The second one from Jesus all the way back to Adam. The only common name to these two lists between David and Jesus is JOSEPH, How can this be true? and also How can Jesus have a genealogy when all Muslims and most Christians believe that Jesus had/has no father.
Dag Haws, I thought we done covered this one already. Ya liked ta give me Deja Vu or something. First off chief, you are dealing with 2 different Genealogies for 2 different people. Mattityahu the tax collector gives Yosef's and Lukas the Doctor gives the geneology of Miriyam who has no brother and to the hebrews if a woman who has no brother marries a man he is considered a son to her father. Go figure, looks like you just showed how ig'nant you is one mo' 'gain!
NEXT!!!!!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:15:25 GMT -5
God be seen? Exod. 24:9,10; Amos 9:1; Gen. 26:2; and John 14:9 God CAN be seen: "And I will take away my hand, and thou shalt see my backparts." (Ex. 33:23) "And the Lord spake to Moses face to face, as a man speaketh to his friend." (Ex. 33:11) "For I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved." (Gen. 32:30) God CANNOT be seen: "No man hath seen God at any time." (John 1:18) "And he said, Thou canst not see my face; for there shall no man see me and live." (Ex. 33:20) "Whom no man hath seen nor can see." (1 Tim. 6:16)
hmmm, interesting. I'll tell you this EVERYTHING you need to know to answer this "contradiction" is in Shimot/Exit-us chapter 33. In that ONE chapter alone you see where Moshe talks to God face to face yet later we read where God says you cannot see my Face because if a man does they will die. Now let's look at God's capabilities. He is capable of appearing with such furvent heat as to melt things in close proximity. Besides you forgot another instance where God is seen, in Genesis 18 where He and 2 others appear before AVraham before they go to destroy Sodom and Gomorrah. Let's look at God's technology for second. WE are talking about a being capable of inter-dimensional flight no? Look at Star Wars for a second. Were they NOT capable of recording themselves in Holograms? REmember that scene where R2D2 and C3PO find Luke Skywalker and replay for him a hologram of Princess Lia? Good! Let's use that for the rest of this explaination. In Exit-us 33 God says you cannot see my face and live right? Well evidently when they "saw" God in the other places in Exitus 33 they were NOT seeing "God" perhaps a hologram of some sort and when it says "He spoke with him face to face AS a man to his friend. Well basically that's mortiphorish speak. Hebrew Idiom if you will, When Moshe was talking to the bush aflame he was talking to God was he not talking face to face then? So what of it? ARe we to say now that God is REALLY a bush on fire? God forbid. Because we know that God appears in a number of forms. I was about to use the word manifest, but I am bored with that word now. In one place he appears as a man, in another place he appears as a man form set on fire, then another place he appears as something else, yet these eyewitnesses of his say they saw God. Well, either we are dealing with different Gods or Angels because the world Elohiym also means Angels in instances. Or we are dealing with a God that appears in multitudinal forms. YET his TRUE form has not been seen. Now how stupid do you think the hebrews are? The men who wrote the later parts of the bible are students of the former part of the bible! Paul and Ishua and John they ALL were students of Torah they read the accounts in Exodus and Genesis and the Prophets do you think for a minute they would PURPOSELY contradict the scriptures having been strict students of the scriptures? I don't think so, with THAT in mind we MUST use another method to explain this. Which is why NO ONE of the faith has a problem with these scriptures save those who are without the faith as yourself.
And to FURTHER prove my point about the manifestations (oops I just used that word) of God and the "God" you see before is very well a hologram, I will take a scripture from Genesis. Genesis 19:24 says what? It says this "Then the Lord rained brimstone and fire on Sodom and Gomorrah, from the Lord out of the heavesn. HUH???!!! Does that even make sense? Hell yes! I will explain it. first of all the word Lord is REALLY YHWH or IHaVaH the name of the God of Ysrael so reread that with that in mind! First of all IHaVaH was on earth chittin and chatting with Avraham on his way to Gomorrah then when he caught up with his buddies that were already their they kicked Lot and them out so they could destroy the city. So IHaVaH is on earth YET we read how IHaVaH rained Fire and brimstone FROM IHAVAH out of the heavens. Dag you mean the same being is in 2 locations at once. I guess that's what it's like being omnipresent and all.
Take a tick tack kid and hit me back wiph anuva one!
NEXT!!!!!
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:15:51 GMT -5
I forgot one ting mahn! I Timoyahu/Timotheos/timothy 6:16 is not even about God it's about a certain glorification of Ishua. Dag kid if you read things in context you would've known that. Dag man, you look kinda stupid for not doing your homework
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Post by 1dell on Mar 6, 2004 21:16:17 GMT -5
Response from Kah:
God cannot be seen with eyes subject to the 5 senses or should I say eyes subject to the 5 books of moshe. As it is known , the five senses/ five books are the pentateuch; world of the pentegram and the imbodiment or shell or husk , thus CAIN.
But he can be seen with the 6th sense, or should I say the sixth book which is the " book of Yeshua " or the book of the anointed one.
Im rusty. Gotta get back into posting :-)
Kah
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