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Post by 1dell on Jun 2, 2003 11:24:22 GMT -5
Nowhere in the scripts is a man called a virgin. But all of a sudden in Revelations it refers to the 144k as men who are virgins? I dont THINK so!!!!
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Post by wispersinthewind on Jun 2, 2003 15:50:43 GMT -5
if GOD is head of CHRIST and in turn CHRIST is the head of MAN, wouldnt that make MAN likened to a woman unto CHRIST and like wise CHRIST likened to a woman unto GOD? Main Entry: [1]virĀ·gin Pronunciation: 'v&r-j&n Function: noun Etymology: Middle English, from Old French virgine, from Latin virgin-, virgo young woman, virgin Date: 13th century 1 a : an unmarried woman devoted to religion b : capitalized : VIRGO 2 a : an absolutely chaste young woman b : an unmarried girl or woman 3 : capitalized : VIRGIN MARY 4 a : a person who has not had sexual intercourse b : a person who is inexperienced in a usually specified sphere of activity <a virgin in politics> 5 : a female animal that has never copulated =========================== P/S THE ROOT WORD IN WOMAN IS MAN. Nowhere in the scripts is a man called a virgin. But all of a sudden in Revelations it refers to the 144k as men who are virgins? I dont THINK so!!!!
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Post by wispersinthewind on Jun 2, 2003 15:53:25 GMT -5
NOTE NUMBER 4 DEFINITION OF VIRGIN IS: A PERSON WHO IS UNEXPERIENCED IN A USUALLY SPECIFIED SPHERE OF ACTIVITIY.
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Post by kAHANyAH on Jun 8, 2003 8:25:53 GMT -5
Virgins because they werent DEFILED thru sex. I will explain that later on bros. Just got back in town. Stay tuned... kAH Nowhere in the scripts is a man called a virgin. But all of a sudden in Revelations it refers to the 144k as men who are virgins? I dont THINK so!!!!
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Post by kAHANyAH on Jun 8, 2003 10:44:42 GMT -5
The greek word used in revelation for virgin is Parthenos. The root word here is Parthos which means to PLEDGE. This is where the catholic priests get the vow of celibacy from or pledging to abstain from sexual gratification or intercourse. What and why are these 144k men pledging or vowing to do to prevent from being DEFILED (Rev 14.4, These are they which were not defiled with women...)? The question one must ask is how can a man, in relation to a woman become defiled ? We must consult the law of Moshe to understand the culture of Israel to find this out... Exodus 19. 14- 15,
- 14 And Moses went down from the mount unto the people, and sanctified the people; and they washed their clothes.
- 15 And he said unto the people, Be ready against the third day: come not at your wives.
What was the need for telling the men of israel to not come unto their wives for the third day upon which God would descend and meet them ? There must be something in the act of sex which would hinder the connection between the descending God and the men. This hinderance is COPULATION. Copulation defiles men. Here is the law on that... Leviticus 15.16
- 16 And if any man's seed of copulation go out from him, then he shall wash all his flesh in water, and be unclean until the even.
According to the laws of Moshe the 144k had to prepare themselves for the advent of the descending God (lamb) and prevent any uncleanliness of the flesh which would deter the union. Take note also of the 3rd. day period which the descending God was to arrive and meet with the camp. This is the same period as the time alloted Y'shua when he was to enter the belly of the earth for a period of 3 days and 3 nites. I will build on this. Shalowm.
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Post by kAHANyAH on Jun 8, 2003 12:16:11 GMT -5
Hey bros., there is one key script. you overlooked (actually a couple, if not many scripts that speak on this)... Judges 21.12 And they found among the inhabitants of Jabeshgilead four hundred young virgins, that had known no man by lying with any male: and they brought them unto the camp to Shiloh, which is in the land of Canaan.I know... I know... I know... you're saying, "what the fluck! this got to do with the 144k" ? That verse is actually encrypted prophecy of the 144k. Let me bring to you the notion that the bible is masonically layed out. the number 144 or 1-44 (144 is I-44 or EYE 44, the dual eyes of Ra known as the eye of set and heru also known as the time given to moshe to receieve the 2 tablets; 40 days and 40 nites) is the same as 400 or 444 or 414 or 440 or 441 or 1400, etc... . the base is FOUR or the SQUARE. Also, in the verse it says "no man" which is a harmonic of the word "wo man" also, within wo man contains the root 'MAN". *Bear in mind, all of this I am offering is unorthordox logic, unorthordox approach* The 400 women are the undefiled men of rev 14. chp. who can proceed to the promise land and marry the bride groom, the land of Khanaan ( New Jerusalem),. This 400 virgin women is recounted in the story of Esau and his 400 bandits... Genesis 33.1, And Jacob lifted up his eyes, and looked, and, behold, Esau came, and with him four hundred men. And he divided the children unto Leah, and unto Rachel, and unto the two handmaids.The above verse is a harmonic alchemy based on the 144k. the 400 men of Esau are the 144k assimilates. Esau is Yeshua the 1 or the I (Eye). Notice Jacob is only able to perceive Esau when he *lifts up his eyes*. Lifting the 'eye' is a sign or another way for explaining the activation of the pineal. With word technology application we can peer deeper into this. Look @ the psonix derivative Esau -> e--SAW or the ability to see, hence the 1; I (eye). Esau and Jacob work in conjunction. But you already the knew that (esau and jacob were twins). I wont go too much into it but I think you get the idea. The theme that binds these verses or any other relevant verse in the bible is the number 400. The constant is 400 so whenever you come across 400 you can corollate those verses and gain particular insight. In my next post I will show you the building of 40 days and 40 nites of Moshe. 40 is psonixally 4T or the 2 vertical column of four Ts. One column of four ts for day and the other for the nite : TT TT TT TT -> the building of a MIGDAL (tower) Like Nimruwd did to reach the heavens. Nowhere in the scripts is a man called a virgin. But all of a sudden in Revelations it refers to the 144k as men who are virgins? I dont THINK so!!!!
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Post by 1dell on Jun 9, 2003 21:39:52 GMT -5
Yo bro, I would prefer they would have translated that eunuchs. And I tell you why, back to Ish'Iha 56:4,5 For thus says IHaVaH to the eunuchs who keep my shabbat and choose what pleases me and hold fast my covenant even to thme I will give my House and within my walls a place and a name better than that of sons and daughters I will give them an everlasting name that shall not be cut off.
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Post by kAHANyAH on Jun 11, 2003 9:11:05 GMT -5
Guess who were the ones to have killed Jezebel, which btw..., is the forerunner to the harlot of revelation ? You got it, the EUNUCHS. - 2 Kings 9. 31-33,
31 And as Jehu entered in at the gate, she said, Had Zimri peace, who slew his master? 32 And he lifted up his face to the window, and said, Who is on my side? who? And there looked out to him two or three eunuchs. 33 And he said, Throw her down. So they threw her down: and some of her blood was sprinkled on the wall, and on the horses: and he trode her under foot.
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Post by 1dell on Jun 7, 2004 6:13:39 GMT -5
yeah bro, I know about the eunuchs that killed ole girl. Dayum!!! Speaking of Yzeb'el. Whats up with the Spirit of Yzeb'el prevailent in women nowadays?
Back to the Eunuchs though. If these 144k are indeed men, which I doubt because of a previous study I've done showed otherwise, then the translators should have translated this as eunuchs UNLESS there is some significance to them being called virgin that is supposed to lend itself to some deeper meaning
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Post by kAHANyAH on Jun 7, 2004 8:29:48 GMT -5
All I know is all scripture is rooted in moshe law. How is a man to prevent from becoming defiled - you consult the law. In the law it says a man is defiled with woman when he engages in sexual intercourse. yeah bro, I know about the eunuchs that killed ole girl. Dayum!!! Speaking of Yzeb'el. Whats up with the Spirit of Yzeb'el prevailent in women nowadays? Back to the Eunuchs though. If these 144k are indeed men, which I doubt because of a previous study I've done showed otherwise, then the translators should have translated this as eunuchs UNLESS there is some significance to them being called virgin that is supposed to lend itself to some deeper meaning
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Post by 1dell on Jun 7, 2004 9:34:32 GMT -5
Acutally bro, a man is defiled not BY the woman but by the spilling of his seed All I know is all scripture is rooted in moshe law. How is a man to prevent from becoming defiled - you consult the law. In the law it says a man is defiled with woman when he engages in sexual intercourse.
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Post by kAHANyAH on Jun 10, 2004 8:26:32 GMT -5
Well 1dell when you are having sex, don't your seed of copulation come out of you ? Plus here is a confirmation script to show you how a man is defiled... - Exd 19:15 And he said unto the people, Be ready against the third day: come not at [your] wives.
[/color] Let me ask you something 1dell, do you know why the men were instructed NOT to come at their wives ? Acutally bro, a man is defiled not BY the woman but by the spilling of his seed
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Post by 1dell on Jun 10, 2004 22:14:12 GMT -5
um because of this: Exd 19:10 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go unto the people, and sanctify them to day and to morrow, and let them wash their clothes,
Exd 19:11 And be ready against the third day: for the third day the LORD will come down in the sight of all the people upon mount Sinai.
here is proof that a man not only defile's himself with his semen but also a woman is defiled by him: Lev 15:16 And if any man's seed of copulation go out from him, then he shall wash all his flesh in water, and be unclean until the even.
Lev 15:17 And every garment, and every skin, whereon is the seed of copulation, shall be washed with water, and be unclean until the even.
Lev 15:18 The woman also with whom man shall lie [with] seed of copulation, they shall [both] bathe [themselves] in water, and be unclean until the even.
What da prollem is? Well 1dell when you are having sex, don't your seed of copulation come out of you ? Plus here is a confirmation script to show you how a man is defiled... - Exd 19:15 And he said unto the people, Be ready against the third day: come not at [your] wives.
[/color] Let me ask you something 1dell, do you know why the men were instructed NOT to come at their wives ? [/quote]
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Post by kAHANyAH on Jun 11, 2004 3:51:29 GMT -5
Before I begin, lets set the record straight. No one said a man is defiled by women. What was said is man is defiled with women during sex. You got to read my words correctly. When someone says a man is defiled by woman vrs. man is defiled with woman, these two statements are not the same. Do you understand the reading comprehension thats goin on here bros. ? if not let me know. Now... Bros. you did not answer my question. Why did he say NOT TO GO UNTO THEIR WIVES ? I will answer for you. Because the "act of sex" defiles a man. How does the act of sex defile a man ? the semen that is ejaculated in the sex act makes a man unclean. G-d directed the men not to have sex with their wives because it causes them to spill their seed and become unclean. Hope you understand why revelation says they were not defiled with women. Women have the power to cause a man to EJACULATE. Now lets take it on another level. That law I cited above is the law the 144k virgins were keeping unto the third day as instructed. This is how they keep themselves from becoming defiled. Remember Ishua said he would return after 3 days. The above law says to not come unto your wives for a period of 3 days (see the connection). Why ? because the lord would descend and meet with them. The same is happening with Christ (lord) and the 144k, he is ready to meet with them. um because of this: Exd 19:10 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go unto the people, and sanctify them to day and to morrow, and let them wash their clothes,
Exd 19:11 And be ready against the third day: for the third day the LORD will come down in the sight of all the people upon mount Sinai.
here is proof that a man not only defile's himself with his semen but also a woman is defiled by him: Lev 15:16 And if any man's seed of copulation go out from him, then he shall wash all his flesh in water, and be unclean until the even.
Lev 15:17 And every garment, and every skin, whereon is the seed of copulation, shall be washed with water, and be unclean until the even.
Lev 15:18 The woman also with whom man shall lie [with] seed of copulation, they shall [both] bathe [themselves] in water, and be unclean until the even.
What da prollem is?
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Post by 1dell on Jun 11, 2004 6:28:57 GMT -5
Dude, this backdoor semantic game you like to play often gets old and tired and it's useless and meaningless. It just gives you the ability to retract what you say when proven wrong or try and spend 3/4ths of a post trying to make me appear incompetent. You and I BOTH know that verse could be retranslated and wouldn't even appear the same In fact the word WITH in greek is Meta. Here are the other meanings of Meta: AV - with 345, after 88, among 5, hereafter + 5023 4, afterward + 5023 4, against 4, not tr 1, misc 32; 473 Lets take that meaning AMONG and we will have an ENTIRELY different meaning to this verse. In fact that would shed better light on this verse thereby making these "virgins" WOMEN instead of men! This book was written by a Hebrew and the hebrews didn't call men virgins. So why then all of a sudden did their cultural speak change? This could very well mean that these virigins were indeed women: "These are they which were not defiled with women" to "These are they which were not defiled among women" Which means what? that these virgins where those found among women who were not defiled. So don't play the word game with me man. This ish is much deeper than that. And for god's sake don't sit here and try to insult my intelligence like I don't see what you are saying. I just see thru your bull jank and skip all the pomp and get to the meat of what we are talking about. You throw up a lot of smoke screens and fanfare that aint really necessary that really don't need to be entertained. Just a bunch of diversion tactics that you think make you look intelligent. And it's obvious you don't even read your own questions because the question you asked me was this: Let me ask you something 1dell, do you know why the men were instructed NOT to come at their wivesnot Why did he say NOT TO GO UNTO THEIR WIVESwhich one Kah? "come at" or "go unto"? besides I did ansaar your question thats why I posted the verses BEFORE Shimot 19:15 Let me do it again because obviously you are the one that don't read posts: um because of this: Exd 19:10 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go unto the people, and sanctify them to day and to morrow, and let them wash their clothes, Exd 19:11 And be ready against the third day: for the third day the LORD will come down in the sight of all the people upon mount Sinai. I started off my thread ansaaring your question. Sorry if it wasn't the ansaar you were looking for but I ansaared the question with the truth. See all this bullshit you do with this trying to make me look all incompetent and like I am evading your questions. spending most of your posts trying to act like I don't read everything you say or didn't ansaar questions is an insult to me. Then when I start insulting you back then you want to scream bloddy murder! I reserve that name calling and insulting for my enemies I don't expect another illuminopolite to come at me like that unnecessarily. But when you do don't expect to be exempt when I start throwing that ish back at you. Before I begin, lets set the record straight. No one said a man is defiled by women. What was said is man is defiled with women during sex. You got to read my words correctly. When someone says a man is defiled by woman vrs. man is defiled with woman, these two statements are not the same. Do you understand the reading comprehension thats goin on here bros. ? if not let me know. Now... Bros. you did not answer my question. Why did he say NOT TO GO UNTO THEIR WIVES ? I will answer for you. Because the "act of sex" defiles a man. How does the act of sex defile a man ? the semen that is ejaculated in the sex act makes a man unclean. G-d directed the men not to have sex with their wives because it causes them to spill their seed and become unclean. Hope you understand why revelation says they were not defiled with women. Women have the power to cause a man to EJACULATE. Now lets take it on another level. That law I cited above is the law the 144k virgins were keeping unto the third day as instructed. This is how they keep themselves from becoming defiled. Remember Ishua said he would return after 3 days. The above law says to not come unto your wives for a period of 3 days (see the connection). Why ? because the lord would descend and meet with them. The same is happening with Christ (lord) and the 144k, he is ready to meet with them.
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