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Post by Derek on Mar 22, 2004 22:04:31 GMT -5
Kah, The Behemoth (Bekhmut) should not be mistaken for Y'shua (Jesus). Taweret who is also called Kefa (Hawwah) is depicted as being pregnant with THE CHILD, who is Jesus. Kefa is referred to in pyramid text as being 'The Living Word'. Kefa is egypt is synonymous with Hawwah, which is Y-HWH. (Self Created, Self Sustaining, Life.) When you get to the New Testament , Jesus being The Child inside the Belly of the Beast (Behemoth-Bekhmut) is associated with THE WORD.
John 1:1
'In the Beginning was THE WORD (Kefa) and THE WORD (Y'shua) was with GOD, the Word was God(THEOS,Theouris, Taweret).'
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Post by Derek on Mar 22, 2004 22:10:08 GMT -5
We lost so much of this understanding, which was transmitted on papyrus collected as the bible, by translations into different languages. It is essential for for anybody reading The Holy Bible, to learn about these languages to get a more enriched meaning, which is lost in our today's English versions.
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Post by 1dell on Mar 23, 2004 0:46:10 GMT -5
How did york get internet access in the joint? Who gave him the address to Illuminopolis? Kah, The Behemoth (Bekhmut) should not be mistaken for Y'shua (Jesus). Taweret who is also called Kefa (Hawwah) is depicted as being pregnant with THE CHILD, who is Jesus. Kefa is referred to in pyramid text as being 'The Living Word'. Kefa is egypt is synonymous with Hawwah, which is Y-HWH. (Self Created, Self Sustaining, Life.) When you get to the New Testament , Jesus being The Child inside the Belly of the Beast (Behemoth-Bekhmut) is associated with THE WORD. John 1:1 'In the Beginning was THE WORD (Kefa) and THE WORD (Y'shua) was with GOD, the Word was God(THEOS,Theouris, Taweret).' |
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Post by kAHANyAH on Mar 23, 2004 5:13:47 GMT -5
was not the Jesus the lord [jeze'baal] tale, a superimposing of the feminin principle on the patri archy. The bible is reminiscent of the aegiptian story of the castrated phallus of Osiris or EMASCULATING THE MALE. With this knowledge, behemoth can indeed be symbolized in jesus. The bible is a MALE BOOK with feminin principles; male tapping into their inner femi9 side - Gen 2:22 And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.Kah, The Behemoth (Bekhmut) should not be mistaken for Y'shua (Jesus). Taweret who is also called Kefa (Hawwah) is depicted as being pregnant with THE CHILD, who is Jesus. Kefa is referred to in pyramid text as being 'The Living Word'. Kefa is egypt is synonymous with Hawwah, which is Y-HWH. (Self Created, Self Sustaining, Life.) When you get to the New Testament , Jesus being The Child inside the Belly of the Beast (Behemoth-Bekhmut) is associated with THE WORD. John 1:1 'In the Beginning was THE WORD (Kefa) and THE WORD (Y'shua) was with GOD, the Word was God(THEOS,Theouris, Taweret).' |
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Post by CoUrTnEy on Mar 23, 2004 11:47:01 GMT -5
I had read somewhere where historians and scholars say that the new versions of the Bible we have today are very close to the "original" versions.. one way they checked these things was to go to other books written around the same time period that referred to certain scriptures of the bible and see how it "carried over" to what we have today. The literal translations are very close- however some symbolism is said to have been lost with the versions such as the "good news bible" and the "living bible".. which i think they referred to them as literary versions because they translated and adjusted to fit a storyline and such. We lost so much of this understanding, which was transmitted on papyrus collected as the bible, by translations into different languages. It is essential for for anybody reading The Holy Bible, to learn about these languages to get a more enriched meaning, which is lost in our today's English versions. |
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Post by CoUrTnEy on Mar 25, 2004 21:27:35 GMT -5
i found this in a book i am reading.. it explains it sorta the way you do: "the differences between Genesis 1 & 2 is literary technique.. genesis 1 provides the overview and genesis 2 provides the details.. You can see this shift from overview to details by the change in the word order from "heaven and earth" (Genesis 1:1) at the beginning of the first account to "earth and heaven" (Genesis 2:4b)at the beginning of the second account.. " Sounds about right courtney, the only thing is, one is the creation of the solar system, while the other is a creation of the Forest of Eden. People must think the hebrews were complete idiots or something. I don't get it. Who would need 2 different creation stories. |
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Post by kAHANyAH on Mar 25, 2004 21:36:30 GMT -5
Peep this coutney... in the first chp acct. of creation, "male and female" are commanded to be "fruitful and multiply". In the second chp. acct. of creation Adam and Eve have their first child OUTSIDE THE GARDEN, after the expulsion. They are being "fruitful and multiply" after getting kicked out. What does this mean ? ALOT! It means , the genesis acct. in the first chp. took place OUTSIDE THE GARDEN OF EDEN while the sec. chp. acct. takes place INSIDE THE GARDEN. Two DIFFERENT CREATION TALES. food for thought. i found this in a book i am reading.. it explains it sorta the way you do: "the differences between Genesis 1 & 2 is literary technique.. genesis 1 provides the overview and genesis 2 provides the details.. You can see this shift from overview to details by the change in the word order from "heaven and earth" (Genesis 1:1) at the beginning of the first account to "earth and heaven" (Genesis 2:4b)at the beginning of the second account.. " |
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Post by CoUrTnEy on Mar 25, 2004 21:50:11 GMT -5
one would not necessarily logically draw that conclusion. i have read it and it seems that it makes more sense what i previously posted about it being a literary technique and what 1dell said about ch 1 being creation of the solar system and ch2 about the garden of eden.. one is an overview and the other is the details. that makes more sense to me that what you have just stated.. no offence kah  Peep this coutney... in the first chp acct. of creation, "male and female" are commanded to be "fruitful and multiply". In the second chp. acct. of creation Adam and Eve have their first child OUTSIDE THE GARDEN, after the expulsion. They are being "fruitful and multiply" after getting kicked out. What does this mean ? ALOT! It means , the genesis acct. in the first chp. took place OUTSIDE THE GARDEN OF EDEN while the sec. chp. acct. takes place INSIDE THE GARDEN. Two DIFFERENT CREATION TALES. food for thought. |
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Post by kAHANyAH on Mar 25, 2004 21:56:07 GMT -5
okay lets try it this way courtney. 1) In second chp. where did Eve have her first child , inside or outside the garden ? when you answer that proceed to the nxt question. 2) Eve having a child , was that a fulfillment of the first commandment of God "be fruitful and multiply" ? when you answer that proceed to the nxt question. 3) In the first chp of Genesis, were the "male and female" inside or outside the garden when God told them to be fruitfull and multiply ?one would not necessarily logically draw that conclusion. i have read it and it seems that it makes more sense what i previously posted about it being a literary technique and what 1dell said about ch 1 being creation of the solar system and ch2 about the garden of eden.. one is an overview and the other is the details. that makes more sense to me that what you have just stated.. no offence kah |
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Post by CoUrTnEy on Mar 25, 2004 21:57:35 GMT -5
and?? so she didnt have a child until after she was expelled out of the garden.. so what?? we have no idea how much time had passed in between.. you would just have to assume in order to make your version correct. okay lets try it this way courtney. 1) In second chp. where did Eve have her first child , inside or outside the garden ? when you answer that proceed to the nxt question. 2) Eve having a child , was that a fulfillment of the first commandment of God "be fruitful and multiply" ? when you answer that proceed to the nxt question. 3) In the first chp of Genesis, were the "male and female" inside or outside the garden when God told them to be fruitfull and multiply ? |
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Post by CoUrTnEy on Mar 25, 2004 22:01:03 GMT -5
i wasnt finished.. go back and read coutney you didnt answer the questions  |
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Post by kAHANyAH on Mar 25, 2004 22:01:39 GMT -5
coutney the point is if she is the first woman, the same woman who we read about in the first chp., and she had her first child OUTSIDE the garden, thus fulfilling the "be fruitful and multiply" command, then one is left NO OTHER choice but to deduce the first chp. of genesis deals with OUTSIDE the garden. and?? so she didnt have a child until after she was expelled out of the garden.. so what?? we have no idea how much time had passed in between.. you would just have to assume in order to make your version correct. |
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Post by CoUrTnEy on Mar 25, 2004 22:05:32 GMT -5
no, one does not have to deduce that.. she was commanded to be fruitful and multiply in chapter 1 but she didnt actually fullfill it until chapter 2 -outside the garden of eden.. now what? coutney the point is if she is the first woman, the same woman who we read about in the first chp., and she had her first child OUTSIDE the garden, thus fulfilling the "be fruitful and multiply" command, then one is left NO OTHER choice but to deduce the first chp. of genesis deals with OUTSIDE the garden. |
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Post by kAHANyAH on Mar 25, 2004 22:07:28 GMT -5
okay we are gettin somewhere here. Lets remember what you just said ok. Now lets continue... What day was she commanded to be fruitful and multiply ? no, one does not have to deduce that.. she was commanded to be fruitful and multiply in chapter 1 but she didnt actually fullfill it until chapter 2 -outside the garden of eden.. now what? |
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Post by CoUrTnEy on Mar 25, 2004 22:09:21 GMT -5
day six okay we are gettin somewhere here. Lets remember what you just said ok. Now lets continue... What day was she commanded to be fruitful and multiply ? |
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